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What is the function of the Tribes Advisory Council? | The Tribes Advisory Council must advise on matters concerning the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes in the State when referred by the Governor. |
What powers does the Governor have regarding the Tribes Advisory Council? | The Governor may make rules about the number of members, their appointment method, and the appointment of the Chairman and officers of the Council. |
Under what condition can a particular Act of Parliament or State Legislature not apply to a Scheduled Area? | The Governor may direct this by public notification, notwithstanding anything in the Constitution. |
What must be done before the Governor makes regulations for a Scheduled Area? | The Governor must consult the Tribes Advisory Council if one exists for the State. |
What is required before any regulation made under the power concerning Scheduled Areas takes effect? | All such regulations must be submitted to the President and cannot have effect until the President assents to them. |
How are 'Scheduled Areas' defined in this Constitution? | The President may declare areas as Scheduled Areas by order. |
What can the President do regarding a Scheduled Area besides declaring it? | The President may direct that an area cease to be a Scheduled Area, increase its area after consultation with the Governor of that State, or alter its boundaries through rectification. |
Who has the power to amend this Schedule? | Parliament may amend the provisions of this Schedule by law from time to time. |
What is a requirement for tribal areas listed in the table of the Sixth Schedule? | The tribal areas shall be an autonomous district, subject to the provisions of that paragraph. |
How many members can a District Council have? | A District Council for each autonomous district shall consist of not more than thirty members. |
What must be done with laws made under paragraph 3B? | Laws made under paragraph 3B must be submitted forthwith to the Governor. |
Who reserves laws related to matters in List III of the Seventh Schedule from the Governor's assent? | The Governor shall reserve such laws for the consideration of the President. |
What must the President declare when a law is reserved for his consideration? | The President must declare whether he assents to the said law or withholds assent therefrom. |
What can the President direct the Governor to do if a law is reserved for the President's consideration? | The President may direct the Governor to return the law to the relevant Council along with a message requesting reconsideration. |
How long does the Council have to consider a law returned by the President? | The Council must consider the law within a period of six months from the date of receipt of the message. |
What powers do the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council and the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council have regarding industries? | They have power to make laws with respect to industries, subject to provisions of entries 7 and 52 of List I of the Seventh Schedule. |
What can the Governor confer powers under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, or the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 on in certain circumstances? | The Governor may confer such powers on the District Council, Regional Council, or appointed officers for trials in autonomous districts or regions. |
Under what conditions can the Governor confer powers related to suits or offenses in an autonomous district or region? | This can happen if the suit arises from a specified law or involves offenses punishable with death, transportation for life, or imprisonment for not less than five years. |
What power does the Governor have regarding the powers conferred on councils or officers under paragraph 5? | The Governor may withdraw or modify any of the powers conferred on a District Council, Regional Council, court, or officer. |
What is one of the things a District Council for an autonomous district may establish or manage? | A District Council may establish, construct, or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, or roads in the district. |
What can the Governor entrust to a District Council with its consent regarding functions? | The Governor may entrust functions related to agriculture, animal husbandry, community projects, social welfare, village planning, or other state executive matters. |
What is constituted for each autonomous district and autonomous region concerning funds? | A District Fund shall be constituted for each autonomous district, and a Regional Fund for each autonomous region. |
Who must audit the accounts of the District or Regional Councils? | The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India must cause the accounts of the District and Regional Councils to be audited. |
What power do the Regional Council and District Council have regarding land revenue in their respective areas? | They have the power to assess and collect revenue for all lands within their jurisdiction, except those under the authority of Regional Councils. |
What types of taxes can a District Council levy and collect within an autonomous district? | A District Council can levy taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments, animals, vehicles and boats, entry of goods into a market, and tolls on passengers and goods carried in ferries. |
What must be done with all laws, rules, and regulations made under this Schedule? | They must be published forthwith in the Official Gazette of the State and will have the force of law upon publication. |
What happens if a District Council or Regional Council law in Meghalaya conflicts with the State Legislature's law? | The law made by the Legislature of the State of Meghalaya shall prevail to the extent of repugnancy. |
What power does the President have regarding an Act of Parliament concerning a district or region in Meghalaya? | The President may direct that an Act of Parliament shall not apply to an autonomous district or region, or may specify exceptions or modifications. |
Under what condition does an Act of the Legislature of Tripura apply to an autonomous district or region? | It applies only if the District Council has jurisdiction over such a region by public notification and directs it so. |
What can the District Council do regarding an Act of the Legislature in Mizoram when applying to an autonomous area? | The District Council may direct that the Act shall have effect subject to exceptions or modifications as it thinks fit. |
Who can appoint a Commission to examine and report on the administration of autonomous districts and regions in the State? | The Governor may appoint such a Commission at any time. |
What is one area that a Commission might inquire into regarding autonomous districts and regions? | A Commission might inquire into the provision of educational and medical facilities or the administration of laws made by Councils. |
Under what condition may the Governor annul or suspend an act or resolution of a District or Regional Council? | The Governor may do so if he is satisfied that the act or resolution is likely to endanger the safety of India or be prejudicial to public order. |
For how long can an order made by the Governor under paragraph 115(1) remain in force, unless revoked? | The order shall continue in force for a period of twelve months from the date it was made. |
What may the Governor do if he is satisfied that an autonomous district's administration cannot be carried on according to this Schedule? | He may, by public notification, assume all or any functions or powers vested in the Council for a period not exceeding six months. |
What must the Governor do regarding the constitution of a District Council as soon as possible after the Constitution's commencement? | The Governor shall take steps for the constitution of a District Council for each autonomous district in the State under this Schedule. |
When was the Eighth Schedule established for the Legislative Assembly of the Assam? | It was established effective from January 21, 1972. |
What amendment inserted provisions into the Eighth Schedule regarding the State of Mizoram? | The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 (34 of 1986) inserted these provisions effective from February 20, 1987. |
What act caused Paragraph 18 to be omitted? | Paragraph 18 was omitted by s. 71(i) and the Eighth Schedule of the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. |
What did the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003 do regarding Paragraph 19? | It amended Paragraph 19 in its application to the State of Assam by inserting a new sub-paragraph (4). |
What is the 'Memorandum of Settlement' defined as for the purpose of the amendment concerning Bodoland Territorial Areas District? | It means the Memorandum signed on February 10, 2003, between the Government of India, the Government of Assam, and Bodo Liberation Tigers. |
What does Part I of the table in the Sixth Schedule refer to? | Part I refers to tribal areas within the State of Assam. |
Which district is listed in Part II of the table, and what state is it associated with? | Khasi Hills District is listed in Part II, which relates to the State of Meghalaya. |
What provision deals with the dissolution of the Mizo District Council? | Paragraph 20A states that the District Council of the Mizo District shall stand dissolved and cease to exist. |
What is the definition of 'prescribed date' in relation to the Union territory of Mizoram? | The prescribed date is the date on which the Legislative Assembly of the Union territory of Mizoram is duly constituted under the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963. |
What does Section 1 of the Seventh Schedule (List I) cover regarding defence? | It covers the Defence of India and every part thereof, including preparation for defence and acts conducive to its prosecution or termination. |
What is covered under entry 25 of the Seventh Schedule? | Maritime shipping and navigation are covered, including shipping and navigation on tidal waters. |
What does entry 30 cover in the Constitution of India (Seventh Schedule)? | Entry 30 covers posts and telegraphs, telephones, wireless, broadcasting, and other like forms of communication. |
What is covered by entry 41? | Entry 41 covers trade and commerce with foreign countries, import and export across customs frontiers, and the definition of customs frontiers. |
What does entry 52 cover regarding industries? | It covers industries whose control by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest. |
What are the subjects covered under entry 77 of the Seventh Schedule? | Entry 77 covers the Constitution, organization, jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court, including contempt of such Court, and fees taken therein. |
What does entry 82 cover in the State List? | Entry 82 covers taxes on income other than agricultural income. |
What is included under entry 14 of the State List? | Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, protection against pests, and prevention of plant diseases are covered by entry 14. |
What does entry 2 of the State List cover? | Entry 2 covers Police (including railway and village police), subject to the provisions of entry 2A of List I. |
What is covered by entry 17 in the State List? | Entry 17 concerns water, which includes water supplies, irrigation and canals, drainage and embankments, water storage and water power subject to provisions of entry 56 of List I. |
What does entry 83 cover regarding duties? | Entry 83 covers customs duties, including export duties. |
What does entry 32 concern in the Seventh Schedule? | Entry 32 concerns incorporation, regulation, and winding up of corporations, other than those specified in List I, and universities. |
What is covered under entry 34 of the Seventh Schedule? | Entry 34 covers betting and gambling. |
What does entry 45 cover in the Seventh Schedule? | Entry 45 concerns land revenue, including assessment and collection of revenue, maintenance of land records, survey for revenue purposes, and alienation of revenues. |
What is covered by entry 51 of the Seventh Schedule? | Entry 51 covers duties of excise on goods manufactured or produced in the State and countervailing duties on similar goods from elsewhere in India. |
What does entry 62 cover in the Seventh Schedule? | Entry 62 concerns taxes on luxuries, including taxes on entertainments, amusements, betting and gambling. |
What is included under List III, entry 1? | List III, entry 1 includes criminal law, which encompasses all matters in the Indian Penal Code at the commencement of this Constitution. |
What does entry 40 of the Seventh Schedule relate to? | Entry 40 relates to Salaries and allowances of Ministers for the State. |
What is covered by entry 861 in List III? | Entry 861 covers relief and rehabilitation of persons displaced from their original place of residence due to the setting up of the Dominions of India and Pakistan. |
What does entry 30 of the Ninth Schedule refer to? | Entry 30 of the Ninth Schedule refers to The Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands (Gujarat Amendment) Act, 1960. |
What is covered by entry 842 in List III? | Entry 842 covers transfer of property other than agricultural land, as well as registration of deeds and documents. |
What is the Gujarat Agricultural Lands Ceiling Act from 1960? | It is listed as Gujarat Act XXVI of 1961. |
What does the Sagbara and Mehwassi Estates (Proprietary Rights Abolition, etc.) Regulation, 1962 cover? | It is designated as Gujarat Regulation I of 1962. |
When was the Maharashtra Agricultural Lands (Ceiling on Holdings) Act enacted? | It was enacted in 1961 and is referred to as Maharashtra Act XXVII of 1961. |
What is the purpose of the Hyderabad Tenancy and Agricultural Lands (Re-enactment, Validation and Further Amendment) Act, 1961? | It is designated as Maharashtra Act XLV of 1961. |
Which act relates to the abolition of Jenmikaram Payment in Kerala? | The Jenmikaram Payment (Abolition) Act, 1960 is listed as Kerala Act III of 1961. |
What does the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code, 1959 cover? | It is designated as Madhya Pradesh Act XX of 1959. |
When was the Madras Cultivating Tenants Protection Act enacted? | The act was passed in 1955 and is referred to as Madras Act XXV of 1955. |
What is the purpose of the Orissa Land Reforms Act, 1960? | It is designated as Orissa Act XVI of 1960. |
Which act deals with the Punjab Security of Land Tenures Act from 1953? | It is listed as Punjab Act X of 1953. |
What is the purpose of the West Bengal Estates Acquisition Act, 1953? | It is designated as West Bengal Act I of 1954. |
What does "House" mean in the Tenth Schedule unless context requires otherwise? | "House" means either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assembly or, as the case may be, either House of the Legislature of a State. |
What is meant by "legislature party" in relation to a member of a political party? | "Legislature party" means the group consisting of all members of that House belonging to that political party. |
What does "original political party" refer to regarding a member of a House? | "Original political party" refers to the political party to which a member belongs for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) of paragraph 2. |
Under what condition is a member of a political party disqualified from being a member of a House? | A member is disqualified if he has voluntarily given up his membership of such a political party. |
What can cause disqualification for a member who votes or abstains contrary to the party's direction? | Disqualification occurs if the voting or abstention happens without prior permission and is not condoned by the political party within fifteen days. |
When an elected member of a House shall be deemed to belong to a political party, if any? | An elected member shall be deemed to belong to the political party by which he was set up as a candidate for election. |
What is one of the grounds for disqualification mentioned in paragraph 2(1)? | One ground for disqualification is if the member has voluntarily given up his membership of such a political party. |
What must happen regarding voting or abstention contrary to party direction for disqualification to apply? | The voting or abstention must occur without obtaining prior permission and not be condoned by the political party within fifteen days. |
What is one of the purposes of the Tenth Schedule? | The Tenth Schedule deals with provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection. |
What must a nominated member be if he is a member of any political party on the date of his nomination? | A nominated member shall be deemed to belong to the political party if he is a member of any political party on the date of his nomination. |
What is required for the merger of two political parties to be deemed to have taken place? | The merger must be agreed upon by not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned. |
Under what condition shall a person who was a member of a political party at the commencement of the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985, be deemed to have been elected? | He must have been a member of that political party immediately before the commencement of the Act. |
What is the disqualification period for a nominated member who joins a political party after taking their seat? | The disqualification applies if they join any political party after six months from the date they take their seat. |
What is substituted for clause (5) in the text? | The substituted clause states that nothing in clause (2) shall affect existing law or future state laws when imposing taxes, penalties, promoting public health, or preventing danger to life or property. |
What is one of the inclusions for 'estate' under sub-clause (a) of clause (2) in article 31A? | Inclusions include sites of buildings and other structures on such land, trees standing on such land, or forest land and wooded waste. |
What does the text state regarding the omission of the proviso to clause (1) in article 31A? | The proviso to clause (1) in article 31A shall be omitted. |
What is added after clause (b) in article 35? | A new clause, (c), is added which concerns preventive detention laws made by the Legislature of the State of Jammu and Kashmir. |
What does Article 35A concern? | Article 35A concerns the saving of laws with respect to permanent residents and their rights in the State of Jammu and Kashmir. |
For what purpose is the population of the State of Jammu and Kashmir deemed to be sixty-three lakhs for the purposes of article 55? | The population of the State of Jammu and Kashmir shall be deemed to be sixty-three lakhs for the purposes of article 55. |
How many seats are allotted to the State in the House of the People for the purposes of sub-clause (a) of clause (1) in article 81? | Six seats shall be allotted to the State in the House of the People. |
What is inserted after clause (1) in article 133? | A new clause, (1A), is inserted which applies section 3 of the Constitution (Thirtieth Amendment) Act, 1972 to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. |
What is substituted for article 248? | Article 248 is substituted with provisions regarding the residuary powers of legislation by Parliament. |
What is added to clause (2) of article 256? | A new clause, (2), is added which states that the State of Jammu and Kashmir shall execute its executive power to facilitate the Union's duties in relation to that State. |
What must be done for a Proclamation of Emergency made on grounds only of internal disturbance or imminent danger thereof to have effect in relation to the State of Jammu and Kashmir? | It must be made at the request or with the concurrence of the Government of that State, or it must be applied subsequently by the President to that State at the request or with the concurrence of the Government of that State. |
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